Posted by pr337h4m 17 hours ago
My house is an asset on my balance sheet. I haven't sold my home or rented it out, it has no direct or indirect income to me. The house has some theoretical value, which is assessed by the government, and on that value I am paying taxes. Is this not a tax on an "unrealized gain?"
Why can't stock and other similar asset classes be treated similarly? I can always pay my homeowner's tax, why couldn't the In-n-Out owner pay a wealth tax? Clearly they're deriving a lot of value from owning stock such that they're able to enjoy a much higher standard of living, clearly there is some ability to pay.
I don't buy into this idea that this disincentivizes private ownership, much less make it infeasible. This is also done elsewhere and it seems... fine? People in Norway seem to still start companies.
Economics is as dot-to-dot picture that folks love to draw sketchy conclusions from by connecting just the dots they see or want to see. But you have to connect all the dots to get a real picture
Company valuations can be utterly ridiculous versus their fundamentals. Hilariously so.
Only one person enjoys the end stages of a monopoly game where that person has cornered the properties and money flows to them unimpeded.
I'm not arguing against wealth here, I believe wealth is a wonderful thing. However greed, especially after needs are met, and the pursuit of more and more actually leaves one feeling depleted, rather than fulfilled. This doesn't even mention the untold damage caused by addiction to money and the current system of cocaine-capitalism.
Dear god, how much wasted space to whine about how “who will think of the rich people?”.